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Well, I may be going off the deep end here, but many philosophers including Plato, Aristotle, and
John Stuart Mill have identified good and happiness as being the same things or at least they have
said that the only finally good thing is happiness. So your question assumes good and happiness are
different and they may not be.
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But some philosophers, for instance Immanuel Kant, have held that although happiness may be a
good thing, it is certainly not the unconditionally good thing (which Kant held was "the good will" or
the motive of duty). So Kant believed that the good was a "deeper end" than happiness.
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